Making a distinction between those who illegally obtained documents and he who published them is not a distinction American law recognizes. Assange shared the agenda of Snowden and Manning, namely to expose what they all thought the U.S. government was doing that was wrong. Depending on when he became involved, Assange was either a co-co…
Making a distinction between those who illegally obtained documents and he who published them is not a distinction American law recognizes. Assange shared the agenda of Snowden and Manning, namely to expose what they all thought the U.S. government was doing that was wrong. Depending on when he became involved, Assange was either a co-conspirator or an accessory after the fact.
If Assange had published the operating manuals for a nuclear submarine, because he thought the U. S. government was wrong in preparing for war, would we agonize over his guilt? We send people to prison who took money for such betrayal; would we excuse their behavior if they took no money? Would we excuse Assange because he was " merely" the publisher?
Putting it more simply, suppose Snowden ans Manning had robbed a bank, and Assange was "merely" their getaway driver. Or suppose that Manning and Snowden had robbed a bank, and Assange only learned of it after the fact, but undertook to harbor them in his attic. Would we grant Assange a pass under either scenario?
Making a distinction between those who illegally obtained documents and he who published them is not a distinction American law recognizes. Assange shared the agenda of Snowden and Manning, namely to expose what they all thought the U.S. government was doing that was wrong. Depending on when he became involved, Assange was either a co-conspirator or an accessory after the fact.
If Assange had published the operating manuals for a nuclear submarine, because he thought the U. S. government was wrong in preparing for war, would we agonize over his guilt? We send people to prison who took money for such betrayal; would we excuse their behavior if they took no money? Would we excuse Assange because he was " merely" the publisher?
Putting it more simply, suppose Snowden ans Manning had robbed a bank, and Assange was "merely" their getaway driver. Or suppose that Manning and Snowden had robbed a bank, and Assange only learned of it after the fact, but undertook to harbor them in his attic. Would we grant Assange a pass under either scenario?